I'm still stuck on the part where we convict people due to their emotions and not due to evidence that they committed the crime. Smiling during a robbery is not conducive to actually performing said robbery, so why is it admissible in court? The judge shouldn't need to make a call on this at all.
I've seen a lot of "the victim was insufficiently distressed therefore they must be lying" in spousal abuse cases. Performance is apparently a huge part of how much you're believed in court